*TL-DR: If the title of this blog post is unsurprising to you, I suggest you go play outside.*

Many discussions in my science social media bubble circle around p-values (what an exciting life I lead…). Just a few days ago, there was a big kerfuffle about p-curving and whether p-values just below 0.05 are a sign of whatever. One of the main concepts behind p-curves is that under the assumption that the null hypothesis (H0) of no effect/difference is true, p-values should be uniformly distributed (at least as long as the test assumptions are met reasonably). This once again supported my suspicions that most people don’t actually know what p-values mean. Reports of people defining p-values incorrectly abound, sometimes even in stats textbooks. It also seems to me that people find p-values rather unintuitive. And I get the impression a lot of people vastly overestimate how widely known things like p-curve actually are.

A few weeks ago I got embroiled in a Facebook discussion. A friend of mine was running a permutation analysis to test something about his experiment and found something very odd: the distribution of p-values was skewed severely to the left – there were very few low p-values but the proportion was steadily increasing with most p-values being just below 1. He expected this distribution to be uniform because under the random permutations H0 should be true. A lot of commenters on his post seemed rather surprised and/or confused by the whole idea that p-values should be distributed randomly when H0 is true. *“Surely,”* so the common intuition goes, *“when there is actually no difference, most p-values should be high and close to 1?”*

No, and the reason why not is the p-value itself. A p-value can be calculated/estimated in many different ways. Most people use parametric tests but essentially they all share one philosophy. If you have no underlying effect and randomly sample data ad infinitum you end up with a distribution of test statistics. In my example, I draw two variables each with n=100 from a normal distribution and calculate the Pearson correlation between them – and I repeat this 20,000 times. This produces a distribution of correlation coefficients like this:

There is no correlation between two random variables (H0 is true) and so the distribution is centred on zero. The spread of the distribution depends on the sample size. Larger samples will produce narrower distributions. Critically, we can use this distribution to get a p-value. If we had observed a correlation of r=0.3 in our experiment, we could calculate the proportion of correlation coefficients in this distribution that are equal or greater than 0.3. This would give us a one-tailed p-value. If you ignore the sign of the correlation, you get a two-tailed p-value.

In the plot above, I coloured the 5% most extreme correlation coefficients in blue (2.5% to the left and to the right, respectively). These regions are abutted by vertical red lines at just below +/-0.2 in this case. This reflects the critical effect size needed to get p<0.05 – only 5% of the correlations coefficients in this distribution are +/-0.19ish or even more extreme.

Now compare this to the region coloured in red. This region also makes up 5% of the whole distribution. However, the red region surrounds zero, that is, those correlation coefficients that are really close to the true correlation value. Random chance makes the distribution spread out (and that becomes more severe when your sample size is low) but most of the correlations will nevertheless be close to the true value of zero. Therefore, the range of values in this red region is much narrower because the values are much denser here.

But of course these nigh-zero correlation coefficients will have the largest p-values. Consider again what a p-value reflects. If your observed correlation is 0.006 and you again ignore the sign of the effects, almost all correlations in this null distribution would be equal or greater than 0.006. So this proportion, the p-value, is almost 1. Put in other words, 5% of low p-values below 0.05 are from the long, thin tails of the null distribution, while 5% of really high p-values above 0.95 are from a really narrow slither of the null distribution near zero:

Visualised the same way, you have the blue region with p<0.05 on the left. Here correlations are large (greater than 0.19ish). On the right, you have the red region with p>0.95. Here correlations are really close to zero.

In other words, you can directly read off the p-value from the x-axis of this distribution of p-values. This is a direct consequence of what p-values represent. They are the proportion of values in the null distribution where correlations are equal or more extreme than the observed correlation.

Of course, if the null hypothesis is false and there actually is a correlation between the two variables this distribution must become skewed. There should now be many more tests with low p-values than with large ones. This is exactly what happens and this is the pattern that analyses like p-curve seek to detect:

Now, my friend’s p-distribution looked essentially like the mirror image of this. I still haven’t learned what could have possibly caused this. It would mean that more effect sizes were close to zero than there should be under H0. This could suggest some assumptions not being met but none of my own feeble simulations managed to reproduce the pattern he found. His analyses sounded quite complex so there is a possibility that there were some complex errors in it.